Prelims · objective
AIBE 2026 (XXI) Question Paper with Answers
100 questions. The first 10 questions are free to attempt. All AIBE papers
Question 1 · Prelims
On which specific date did the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, officially come into force, replacing the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?
- (A) August 15, 2023
- (B) January 1, 2024
- (C) December 25, 2023
- (D) July 1, 2024
Answer: (D) July 1, 2024
Question 2 · Prelims
Under the Constitution of India, consider the amendments: I. Judicial review extends to constitutional amendments. II. Laws inserted into the Ninth Schedule after 24th April, 1973 remain open to scrutiny for violation of the basic structure. III. Parliament's amending power under Article 368 is unlimited. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
- (A) I, II and III
- (B) I and II
- (C) II and III
- (D) I only
Answer: (B) I and II
Question 3 · Prelims
Which of the following innovative penal measures has been officially incorporated into the sentencing framework under Section 4 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023
- (A) Compulsory forfeiture of ancestral property
- (B) Community Service
- (C) Solitary confinement
- (D) Life imprisonment without the possibility of parole
Answer: (B) Community Service
Question 4 · Prelims
A executes a document in favour of B stating, “I hereby sell my house to B for ₹ 5,00,000. If I repay the amount within 3 years, B shall retransfer the property to me; otherwise, the sale shall become absolute.” The condition is included in the same docume nt. A fails to repay within 3 years. B claims absolute ownership. Examine the correct legal position under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882.
- (A) It is a mortgage by conditional sale; B must seek foreclosure through court.
- (B) The transaction is void for uncertainty.
- (C) It is a lease with an option to repurchase.
- (D) It is an outright sale; B becomes absolute owner automatically.
Answer: (A) It is a mortgage by conditional sale; B must seek foreclosure through court.
Question 5 · Prelims
Read the following statements and choose the correct option. Under the Copyright Act, 1957 : Statement I: In the case of a posthumous literary work, copyright subsists for sixty years from the beginning of the calendar year next following the year in which the work is first published. Statement II: For such works, publication refers to making the work available to the public by issue of copies or by communication to the public.
- (A) Both Statements I and II are false
- (B) Only Statement II is true
- (C) Both Statements I and II are true
- (D) Only Statement I is true
Answer: (C) Both Statements I and II are true
Question 6 · Prelims
In the following question, a Statement is followed by two Conclusions, I and II. Statement: Section 5 of the Minimum Wages Act, 1948 gives a detailed procedure for fixing or revising minimum wages in respect of any scheduled employment. After considering the advice of the committees appointed, and all representations received by it bef ore the date notified Government may by notification in the official gazette, fix or revise the minimum rates of wages. Conclusion I: If a date is specified in the notification, the minimum rates shall come into force from such date. Conclusion II: If no date is specified, then they shall come into force from the expiry of three months from the date of issue of the notification. In the context of the above Statement and Conclusions, which one of the following is correct?
- (A) Both Conclusions I and II follow
- (B) Only Conclusion II follows
- (C) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows
- (D) Only Conclusion I follows
Answer: (A) Both Conclusions I and II follow
Question 7 · Prelims
Directions: The following question consists of two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide if the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are individually true an d if so, whether the Reason (R) is a correct explanation of the Assertion (A) . Assertion (A): The respondent was engaged as a Safai Karamchari in a charitable trust. The dispute originated when he was terminated due to repeated absence from duty. The trust challenged the award on the grounds that it was not an 'industry' under Sectio n 2(j) of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, and therefore the worker was not a workman, making Section 25 - F inapplicable. Reason (R): The trust engaged in multifarious activities including commercial ventures and hired employees for commercial and charitable activities in an organized manner with proper remuneration. In the context of the above Assertion and Reason under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, which one of the following is correct?
- (A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
- (B) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
- (C) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
- (D) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Answer: (D) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Question 8 · Prelims
Under the scheme of the Constitution of India, once a Proclamation under Article 352 is in operation, Parliament may legislate on matters in the State List by virtue of:
- (A) Article 356
- (B) Article 249
- (C) Article 250
- (D) Article 360
Answer: (C) Article 250
Question 9 · Prelims
Which provision of the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973, provides a summary legal remedy for the maintenance of spouses, children, and parents who are unable to support themselves?
- (A) Section 320
- (B) Section 107
- (C) Section 144
- (D) Section 125
Answer: (D) Section 125
Question 10 · Prelims
Which of the following is not included in “The Industrial Relations Code, 2020” ?
- (A) Trade Unions Act, 1926
- (B) Industries (Development and Regulation) Act, 1951 (IDR Act)
- (C) Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
- (D) Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946
Answer: (B) Industries (Development and Regulation) Act, 1951 (IDR Act)